Wanted to get some opinions on this and I know there aren’t any lawyers in the group (that I’m aware of).
Here are the basics, and these properties are in Texas: Husband acquired several properties while married to wife1, she is deceased and he’s willing to provide a copy of the death certificate. I’ve yet to get copies of the vesting deeds, so I am not yet sure if wife1 is named in them or not.
Husband is now remarried to wife2, but states that wife2 would not need to sign deeds due to them having a prenuptial agreement that (in his words state what’s his is his and what’s hers is hers prior to their marriage.
Go with the opinions!
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